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Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Service Provider Next-Generation Egde Network Services
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NO.1 Which type of VPN requires a full mesh of virtual circuits to provide optimal site-to-site
connectivity?
A. peer-to-peer VPNs
B. Layer 2 overlay VPNs
C. GET VPNs
D. MPLS Layer 3 VPNs
Answer: B
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Explanation:
http://etutorials.org/Networking/MPLS+VPN+Architectures/Part+2+MPLSbased+Virtual+Pri
vate+Networks/Chapter+7.+Virtual+Private+Network+VPN+Implementation+Options/Overl
ay+and+Peer-to-peer+VPN+Model/
Two VPN implementation models have gained widespread use: The overlay model, where the service
provider provides emulated leased lines to the customer. The service provider provides the customer
with a set of emulated leased lines. These leased lines are called VCs, which can be either constantly
available (PVCs) or established on demand (SVCs). The QoS guarantees in the overlay VPN model
usually are expressed in terms of bandwidth guaranteed on a certain VC (Committed Information
Rate or CIR) and maximum bandwidth available on a certain VC (Peak Information Rate or PIR). The
committed bandwidth guarantee usually is provided through the statistical nature of the Layer 2
service but depends on the overbooking strategy of the service provider The peer-to-peer model,
where the service provider and the customer exchange Layer 3 routing information and the provider
relays the data between the customer sites on the optimum path between the sites and without the
customer's involvement. The peer-to-peer VPN model was introduced a few years ago to alleviate the
drawbacks of the overlay VPN model. In the peer-to-peer model, the Provider Edge (PE) device is a
router (PE-router) that directly exchanges routing information with the CPE router. The Managed
Network service offered by many service providers, where the service provider also manages the CPE
devices, is not relevant to this discussion because it's only a repackaging of another service. The
Managed Network provider concurrently assumes the role of the VPN service provider (providing the
VPN infrastructure) and part of the VPN customer role (managing the CPE device).
The peer-to-peer model provides a number of advantages over the traditional overlay model: Routing
(from the customer's perspective) becomes exceedingly simple, as the customer router exchanges
routing information with only one (or a few) PE-router, whereas in the overlay VPN network, the
number of neighbor routers can grow to a large number. Routing between the customer sites is
always optimal, as the provider routers know the customer's network topology and can thus establish
optimum inter-site routing. Bandwidth provisioning is simpler because the customer has to specify
only the inbound and outbound bandwidths for each site (Committed Access Rate [CAR] and
Committed Delivery Rate [CDR]) and not the exact site-to-site traffic profile. The addition of a new
site is simpler because the service provider provisions only an additional site and changes the
configuration on the attached PE-router. Under the overlay VPN model, the service provider must
provision a whole set of VCs leading from that site to other sites of the customer VPN.
Prior to an MPLS-based VPN implementation, two implementation options existed for the peer-to-
peer VPN model: The shared-router approach, where several VPN customers share the same PE-
router. The dedicated-router approach, where each VPN customer has dedicated PE-routers. Overlay
VPN paradigm has a number of drawbacks, most significant of them being the need for the customer
to establish point-to-point links or virtual circuits between sites. The formula to calculate how many
point-to-point links or virtual circuits you need in the worst case is *1/2, where n is the
number of sites you need to connect. For example, if you need to have full-mesh connectivity
between 4 sites, you will need a total of 6 point-topoint links or virtual circuits. To overcome this
drawback and provide the customer with optimum data transport across the Service Provider
backbone, the peer-to-peer VPN concept was introduced where the Service Provider actively
participates in the customer routing, accepting customer routes, transporting them across the Service
Provider backbone and finally propagating them to other customer sites.
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*1:n)(n-1
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NO.1 You want to reconcile the amounts you have in a main bank G/L account in your system with
the daily bank statement. You create a single intermediate G/L bank account for each bank. All
transactions with the bank are posted through the intermediate account. Which of the following
indicators do you have to activate in the G/L account characteristics of the intermediate account?
(Choose two)
A. P&L statement account
B. Reconciliation account for account type Bank
C. Post automatically only
D. Open item management
E. Line item display
Answer: D,E
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NO.2 Which of the following factors determine the field status for vendors?
A. Account group, transaction, and chart of accounts
B. Account group, transaction, and company code
C. Transaction, chart of accounts, and company code
D. Account group, chart of accounts, and company code
Answer: B
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NO.1 AGuardium administrator is registering a new Collector to a Central Manager (CM). The
registration failed. As part of the investigation, the administrator wants to identify if the firewall ports
are open-How can the administrator do this?
A. Ask the company's network administrators.
B. Login as CLI and execute support show port open <ip address> <port number>
C. Ask IBM technical support to login as root and verify.
D. Login as CLI and execute telnet <ip address> <port number>
Answer: B
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NO.2 In a centrally managed environment, while executing the report 'Enterprise Buffer Usage
Monitor', a Guardium administrator gets an empty report. Why is the report empty?
A. Correct custom table upload is not scheduled on the Central Manager.
B. The report is not executed with a remote source on the Collector.
C. Sniffers are not running on the Collectors.
D. The report is not executed with a remote source on the Aggregator.
Answer: D
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Exam Name: IBM WebSphere Commerce V7 (FEP 7), Application Development
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NO.1 Which three statements are true about the working of system privileges in a multitenant
control database (CDB) that has pluggable databases (PDBs)?
A. System privileges with the with grant option container all clause must be granted to a common
user before the common user can grant privileges to other users.
B. The granter of system privileges must possess the set container privilege.
C. Local users cannot use local system privileges on the schema of a common user.
D. System privileges apply only to the PDB in which they are used.
E. Common users connected to a PDB can exercise privileges across other PDBs.
Answer: A,B,D
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Explanation:
A, Not D: In a CDB, PUBLIC is a common role. In a PDB, privileges granted locally to PUBLIC enable all
local and common users to exercise these privileges in this PDB only.
C: A user can only perform common operations on a common role, for example, granting privileges
commonly to the role, when the following criteria are met:
The user is a common user whose current container is root.
The user has the SET CONTAINER privilege granted commonly, which means that the privilege applies
in all containers.
The user has privilege controlling the ability to perform the specified operation, and this privilege has
been granted commonly
Incorrect:
Note:
* Every privilege and role granted to Oracle-supplied users and roles is granted commonly except for
system privileges granted to PUBLIC, which are granted locally.
NO.2 To enable the Database Smart Flash Cache, you configure the following parameters:
DB_FLASH_CACHE_FILE = '/dev/flash_device_1' , '/dev/flash_device_2'
DB_FLASH_CACHE_SIZE=64G
What is the result when you start up the database instance?
A. One 64G flash cache file will be used.
B. Two 64G flash cache files will be used.
C. It results in an error because these parameter settings are invalid.
D. Two 32G flash cache files will be used.
Answer: C
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- Use EM Express
- Use OUI, DBCA for installation and configuration
- Identify the benefits of the multitenant container database
- Explain root and multitenant architecture
- Create and configure a CDB
- Create and configure a PDB
- Migrate a non-CDB to a PDB database
- Establish connection to a CDB/PDB
- Start up and shut down a CDB/PDB
- Change instance parameters for a CDB/PDB
Lpi certification 117-300 exam questions 117-300 Questions and answers 117-300 VCE Dumps
NO.1 Which of the following parameters is used in the database on a slave server to direct clients
that want to make changes to the OpenLDAP database to the master server?
A. updateuri
B. updatedn
C. updateref
D. updateserver
Answer: C
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NO.2 What is the correct command to regenerate slapd indices based upon the current contents of
the database?
A. slapindex
B. slapd index
C. sindexd
D. There is no index command, indexing is handled by the slapd daemon.
Answer: A
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT a type of float?
A. Total
B. Negative
C. Open end
D. Free
Answer: C
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NO.2 Meetings require:
A. Goals, an agenda, flipchart, computer projector, laser pointer and consulting with others where
appropriate
B. Goals, an agenda, preparation, control, good listening skills and relevant discussions
C. Goals, an agenda, preparation, conclusions, control and conversations that are relevant
D. Goals, an agenda, preparation, relevant discussions, support for your actions and to consider the
total physical and human setting of the meeting
Answer: C
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NO.1 This tool is an 802.11 WEP and WPA-PSK keys cracking program that can recover keys once
enough data packets have been captured. It implements the standard FMS attach along with some
optimizations like Korek attacks, as well as the PTW attack, thus making the attack much faster
compared to other WEP cracking tools.
Which of the following tools is being described?
A. Aircrack-ng
B. Wificracker
C. Airguard
D. WLAN-crack
Answer: A
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NO.2 Which of these options is the most secure procedure for strong backup tapes?
A. In a cool dry environment
B. Inside the data center for faster retrieval in afireproof safe
C. In a climate controlled facility offsite
D. On a different floor in the same building
Answer: C
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